Question by Andy W: Why did Man Utd allow the Glazer take over when they could only buy it from borrowings, now enburdening Man U? I don't really follow Man Utd, so I don't really know. But I was reading in the Guardian today that: "The Glazer family bought the club in 2005 with huge borrowings, and loaded their own debts and swingeing interest payments on the club. United's most recent accounts showed that the club, who had no debts before the Glazer's arrived, with borrowings now of £666m, including £152m owed to hedge funds, and interest due last year of £81m". Why on earth did Man Utd allow someone to buy them who didn't have the money 'up front' but had to borrow the money? And then why did the club allow them to transfer the debt to the club? This sounds like madness. Where was the 'carrot' or incentive, for the club to do this? But then perhaps I have mis-understood something. Thanks in advance for any answers.
Best answer: Answer by Mr Kennedy - Champ10ns
the only thing you have misunderstood is the fans and the club had no choice the share holders sold their stakes to him privately once he had 75% he controled the club lawfully do you really think we wanted him here....
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